Baseline Calcium Level -- Isn't this cheating?
Posted: Wed Sep 04, 2013 11:59 am
Hello,
I am currently modifying a model, trying to get the calcium dynamics to work properly. (Unfortunately, calcium levels in many models are significantly higher than the experimental data. I have tried the Grunditz and Sterratt models so far.) I have noticed that in every model that I have seen so far, the author includes the baseline calcium concentration level (around 50-70nM) in the code. Isn't this simply cheating?
Without any stimulation (synaptic stimulation, current clamp etc.) the calcium concentration in the cell must stabilize around 50-70nM. BUT, this must happen simply because the calcium influx by NMDA receptors and calcium channels should be canceled out by the calcium efflux by the calcium pumps. NOT because the rate/strength of calcium pumps/channels/NMDAs depend directly on the desired equillibrium point. (that we have to read off a book and include in the code.)
Some examples:
Example 1:
Here, the baseline calcium level is included in the mod file of the NMDA receptor.
Example 2:
Here, the baseline calcium level is included in the calcium pump dynamics. (cainf).
Example 3:
Here, cai0 is the baseline calcium level. This is included in the mod file that directly controls the calcium concentration. This is even worse that the others, the calcium levels are adjusted by the hand of god so that after a while, calcium concentration will always go back to the baseline level.
I see that this method is used everywhere, is it impossible (or very difficult, or unnecessary) to create a model that will reach equillibrium without including the desired equillibrium level in the code? I believe that this would be a perfect way to test a model's calcium dynamics, if it reaches an equillibrium and if the calcium concentration level agrees with the experimental data; this would be a good reason to pop a champagne and celebrate.
Sorry for the long post. I can provide the full files of these examples, if needed.
Mehmet
I am currently modifying a model, trying to get the calcium dynamics to work properly. (Unfortunately, calcium levels in many models are significantly higher than the experimental data. I have tried the Grunditz and Sterratt models so far.) I have noticed that in every model that I have seen so far, the author includes the baseline calcium concentration level (around 50-70nM) in the code. Isn't this simply cheating?
Without any stimulation (synaptic stimulation, current clamp etc.) the calcium concentration in the cell must stabilize around 50-70nM. BUT, this must happen simply because the calcium influx by NMDA receptors and calcium channels should be canceled out by the calcium efflux by the calcium pumps. NOT because the rate/strength of calcium pumps/channels/NMDAs depend directly on the desired equillibrium point. (that we have to read off a book and include in the code.)
Some examples:
Example 1:
Code: Select all
INITIAL {
P = (1-exp(-65*-0.0755))/(10*Area*14564*(50e-09-(2e-03*exp(-65*-0.0755))))*k :converting conductance to permaebility
}Example 2:
Code: Select all
DERIVATIVE state {
drive_channel = - (10000) * ica / (2 * FARADAY * depth)
if (drive_channel <= 0.) { drive_channel = 0. } : cannot pump inward
:ca' = drive_channel + (cainf-ca)/taur
ca' = drive_channel/18 + (cainf -ca)/taur*7
cai = ca
}
Example 3:
Code: Select all
DERIVATIVE integrate {
cai' = -ica/depth/F/2 * (1e7) + (cai0 - cai)/tau
}
I see that this method is used everywhere, is it impossible (or very difficult, or unnecessary) to create a model that will reach equillibrium without including the desired equillibrium level in the code? I believe that this would be a perfect way to test a model's calcium dynamics, if it reaches an equillibrium and if the calcium concentration level agrees with the experimental data; this would be a good reason to pop a champagne and celebrate.
Sorry for the long post. I can provide the full files of these examples, if needed.
Mehmet